Drug Abuse Treatment History (p. 8)

1. Studies of prison-based drug abuse treatment have found that it:
Can effectively reduce drug use and crime.
Can effectively reduce drug use but not crime.
Costs slightly more than community-based drug abuse treatment.
Works best for inmates who have higher problem severity.

2. Based on the logistic regression analysis, which of the following sets of variables were found to significantly predict prior drug abuse treatment?
Age, marital status, full-time employment, and years of regular drug use
Years of regular drug use and educational level
Years of alcohol use, years of cocaine use, dental problems, and the number of drug use convictions
Dental problems, years of cocaine use, years of opioid use, and the number of drug use convictions

 3. Which of the following was concluded by the authors?
Identifying and treating only the inmates who have the most severe drug problems may be a better approach to addressing drug abuse problems among inmates.
Because they have access to health care in the prison, prisoners are among the healthiest groups in the United States.
More drug and alcohol treatment in correctional settings is needed.
More effective crime reduction programs will reduce drug use.
 
4. The 1996 Treatment Survey of Prison Facilities found that all of the following were reasons for the substance abuse treatment gap EXCEPT:
Physical space limitations.
Frequent movement of inmates within correctional facilities.
Low interest among prison administrators.
Shortage of counselors.

Abnormal Pap Smears Follow-Up (p. 22)

1. Which of the following is NOT a direct risk factor for cervical cancer?
Smoking
Early age at first intercourse
Multiple pregnancies
Sexually transmitted infections

2. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for follow-up of an ASCUS Pap smear?
Refer to colposcopy
Continue to routine screening
HPV testing
Repeat Pap smear in 3-6 months

 3. The majority of Pap smear results in this study were:
Normal
ASCUS
HGSIL
LGSIL

4. The most prevalent cervical cancer risk factor in this study was:
Diabetes
HIV
STI
Tobacco use

Event-Level HIV Risk (p. 27)

1. In the first seven days after release from prison, which day had the greatest number of sexual events?
Day 1
Day 3
Day 5
Day 7

2. During the first week postrelease, Day 1 initiators accumulated fewer, more, or about the same number of sexual events compared to those who initiated sex on Days 2-7?
Fewer
More
About the same number

3. Those who initiated sex on Days 2-7 were _____ likely to use a condom during sex than Day 1 initiators.
Less
More
About as

4. When engaged in sexual events with noncommitted partners, Day 1 initiators were ______ to use a condom as those who initiated sex on Days 2-7.
Less
More
About as likely

Overweight Incarcerated Juveniles (p. 39)

1. Since the early 1970s the percentage of children and adolescents who are classified as being overweight has:
Decreased
Stayed the same
More than doubled
Increased fivefold

2. Body mass index (BMI) is calculated by measuring:
Bone mineral density
Skinfolds
Height and weight
Bone age

3. The degree of overweight or at risk for overweight in children is defined by BMIs:
Greater than 35 or 30 (kg/m2) respectively.
At or above the 95th percentile and between the 85th and 95th percentile, respectively, for age and gender.
At or above the 75th percentile and between the 50th and 75th percentile, respectively, for age and gender.
Greater than 40 or 35 (kg/m2) respectively.

4. African American males admitted to this long-term juvenile correctional facility were most likely to have a BMI that categorizes them as:
Underweight
Normal weight
At risk for overweight
Overweight

Clinical Guidelines: Adolescent Asthma (p. 47)

1. For first-time wheezing, which diagnostic test is recommended for diagnosing asthma?
Chest x-rays
Pulmonary function tests
Peak flow meter reading
None of the above

2. Juveniles with an initial diagnosis of asthma should:
Be seen every six weeks until the degree of disease is established.
Use a beta-agonist inhaler only when instructed by health staff.
Be taught to report symptoms promptly.
Have an annual peak expiratory flow measurement.

3. Good control of asthma is characterized by:
Peak flow levels less than 70%.
More than 1 urgent care on-site visit a month.
No more than once-a-week awakening with asthma symptoms.
No more than one beta-agonist canister used in 2 months.

4. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation from the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program for children with asthma?
Use of an inhaled corticosteroid is the preferred first-line therapy for all levels of severity of persistent asthma in children of all ages.
Adding an inhaled long-acting beta2-agonist to the therapeutic protocol is the preferred treatment for patients whose asthma is not controlled by an inhaled corticosteroid alone.
Routine use of cromolyn or nedocromil for mild or moderate persistent asthma.
Short-acting bronchodilator inhaled beta2-agonist is used as needed for symptoms in mild persistent asthma.

Clinical Guidelines: Adolescent Seizure Disorders (p. 56)

1. The gold standard for assessing a new onset of seizure disorder after the age of 20 is:
Electroencephalogram (EEG).
Computerized tomography (CT).
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Lumbar puncture (LP).

2. Of the following quality improvement monitors, which is most appropriate for assessing seizure control?
The ratio of the number of seizures in a given time period (e.g., one month)
Documentation for the rationale to use isonizid in a patient on antiepileptic medication
Percentage of persons entering a long-term facility who are age 20 or older with a history of seizure disorder
Percentage of patients receiving appropriate immunizations (influenza, pneumovax, hepatitis B)

3. Patients in good control need not be seen more frequently than:
Monthly.
Every 2 to 3 months.
Every 3 to 4 months.
Every 6 months.

4. Discontinuation of medication can be considered if the patient fits the following profile:
Is seizure-free at a minimum of 1 year on antiepileptic drugs.
Has a simple partial or complex partial type of seizure.
Has a normal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Has no toxicity of antiepileptic drugs for at least 2 years.
 

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